Yield curve inversion is often a sign of a looming recession, but is there an explanation of this phenomenon other than the fact that historically we have seen that the two phenomena were indeed associated together.
Asked
Viewed
19 times
-
$\begingroup$ Seems similar to economics.stackexchange.com/questions/19904/… $\endgroup$ – Brian Romanchuk Aug 15 '19 at 21:03
