When I’m using the forward exchange rate formula based on non-arbitrage theory, it tells me that a positive interest rate spread (i_domestic > i_foreign)would cause the forward exchange rate(units of foreign currency that I get for each 1 unit of domestic currency I pay) to be lower than the spot exchange rate, indicating that a positive domestic-to-foreign interest rate spread would lead to depreciation of the domestic currency.
However, people keep saying that if the domestic Central Bank decides to raise the domestic interest rate, it would make the domestic currency to appreciate as international investors would be more willing to pour their money into the domestic market(selling foreign currency for domestic currency) due to a higher yield. This is saying domestic interest has a positive relationship with the exchange rate(units of foreign currency that I get for each 1 unit of domestic currency I pay).
So I’m confused about how these two different approaches give contradictory results. Can someone please explain this to me?