To preface this, I am asking this question on the Econ SE because I was made aware on Cross Validated that Difference in Difference estimation is quite an economics specific method.
The picture above depicts deviations from Covered Interest Parity, for the Yen, the Euro and Pound Sterling. The vertical gray bars mark quarter-end reporting dates. My plan was now to apply a Difference in Difference estimation in order to investigate if larger deviations from CIP coincide with quarter ends after January 2015. The reason behind suspected quarter-end dynamics is the change in reporting standards for global banks in 2015. From 2015 onwards European banks are coerced to report a snapshot of their balance sheet on the last day of each quarter. For U.S. banks a similar report is required, however in the form of the average of the month ends. The reasoning behind this hypothesis is that said reporting standards coupled with capital requirements cause balance sheet costs and therefore lead to a decrease of banks engaging in arbitrage.
This paper by DU et. al., which applies a difference in difference estimation, investigates the above-explained dynamics: https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/jofi.1262
As can be seen in the graph the three time-series that I could acquire, have different missing values. Consequently, I am unsure of how to proceed. The procedure applied in the paper does not seem like it actually requires a panel, please correct me here if you disagree. What leads me to believe that a panel is not actually required here, is based on the fact that the treated and untreated group are not as normally the case two different parts of the panel, in this case they are treated and untreated groups, at quarter-end/not at quarter-end and prior to 2015/after 2015 in all three time-series.
Hence this results in two questions: Is it possible to build a panel considering that the three time-series have missing values at different points in time without losing every observation that is missing for one of the three currencies?
Is it possible to estimate this difference-in-difference for each currency by itself, considering the facts I have pointed out above?
Model:
$x_{1w,it}= \alpha_0 +\gamma_1Post15_t+ \beta_{1}QendW_{t}+\beta_{2}QendW_{t} \times Post15_t + \epsilon_{it}$
Where $QendW$ equals 1 if the settlement date of the contract is within a reporting date, $Post15$ equals 1 after the European Leverage Ratio Delegated Act was established, and zero otherwise.
I am very grateful for any tips or hints, thank you!