My thought process here would be that since government bonds are usually held by the richer households, buying of these government bonds would inject a large amount of money only to the richest, thus creating an imbalance.
Though empirical analysis seems to contradict this https://www.ecb.europa.eu/pub/pdf/scpwps/ecb.wp2190.en.pdf
From what I understand, the increase in economic growth created less inequality, raising the incomes of poor households. Does this mean that if growth is controlled for monetary policy would increase inequality or am I missing something?
(Also monetary policy reduces the rate of returns on capital, does this eventually lead to less inequality? I am thinking of Piketty's r-g framework)
