Under what criteria a regressive or proportional tax can be used to fully fund a welfare program or policy that it's progressive (i.e., one that benefits lower-income people more) in nature? Are there any examples worldwide?

  • $\begingroup$ Are you asking if there are any regressive/proportional taxes that result in higher tax revenue than any welfare programs? This could be decided by looking at the annual budgets of different countries. $\endgroup$ – Giskard Oct 5 '19 at 5:40
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    $\begingroup$ Not sure what you mean. If I collect \$1 from everyone and give it out to the poor, then it's a progressive policy (helping the poor) funded by a proportional tax? $\endgroup$ – Art Oct 5 '19 at 7:14
  • $\begingroup$ @Art - I think a \$1 poll tax would usually be seen as regressive as not being proportional to some measure of being rich/poor such as wealth, income or expenditure $\endgroup$ – Henry Oct 5 '19 at 14:03
  • $\begingroup$ A well-designed sales tax is proportional to expenditure, i.e. to standard of living. If used to fund education (as in some US states) so children across the rich/poor spectrum all get the same benefits, then it can be seen as progressive. $\endgroup$ – Henry Oct 5 '19 at 14:03
  • $\begingroup$ Oh new knowledge. I've always thought that progressive tax is when the rich pay more than the poor. Thanks for the clarification! $\endgroup$ – Art Oct 5 '19 at 14:33

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