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What is the best way to regress this effect. I would like to show the effect of the production of different agricultural products (Rice, maize, wheat etc..) have on the gdp of a country (India in this case) holding all other factors equal. Would this regression make sense. Assuming my independent variables are crop yields. Would it make sense to do it this way? Thank you

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  • $\begingroup$ Since a production of those products are counted directly as a part of GDP, you already know the answer. Unless you mean you want to get second-, third-, etc. round effects as well. $\endgroup$ – Art Oct 21 at 7:19
  • $\begingroup$ @Art thanks for the response, I guess then it doesn't quite make much sense to observe those effects, I will have to find another question. $\endgroup$ – Kenyan Blazerod Oct 21 at 7:39

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