Consider a game where a decision maker (DM) has to choose action $y\in \mathcal{Y}$ possibly without being fully aware of the state of the world $V$. The state of the world has support $\mathcal{V}$. The DM receives the payoff $u(y,v)$ depending on the chosen action $y$ the realisation $v$ of $V$. Let $P_V\in \Delta(\mathcal{V})$ be the DM's prior.
Is the following the correct definition of 1 player Bayesian Correlated Equilibrium provided in Bergemann and Morris (2013,2016,etc.)?
$P_{Y,V}\in \Delta(\mathcal{Y}\times \mathcal{V})$ is a 1 player Bayesian Correlated Equilibrium if
1) $\sum_{y\in \mathcal{Y}}P_{Y,V}(y,v)=P_V(v)$ for each $v\in \mathcal{V}$
2) $\sum_{v\in \mathcal{V}}u(y,v)P_{Y,V}(y,v)\geq \sum_{v\in \mathcal{V}}u(\tilde{y},v)P_{Y,V}(y,v)$ for each $y$ and $\tilde{y}\neq y$.
In particular, I have doubts about $2)$: what if there is a $y$ such that $P_{Y,V}(y,v)=0$ for each $v\in \mathcal{V}$? Am I missing something?