It is a well known fact in consumer theory that for a Hicksian demand curve the cross-price elasticity of good $i$ with respect to the price of good $j$ equals the cross-price elasticity of good $j$ with respect to the price of good $i$. This result (iirc) depends only on the utility function being continuous and so has great generality.
Of course, no consumer is actually Hicksian (though firms of course are) but the vast majority of goods take up only a small portion of a person's expenditure and so we expect the income effect to be small, and so the consumer de-facto Hicksian. What is the empirical status of this prediction? Do economists agree with my claim that most consumers are de-facto Hicksians? If the answer to the second question is no, have similar empirical tests been done for firms?