in "Artificial intelligence, Automation and Work" by Acemoglu and Restrepo, the authors write:
Capital accumulation: As our framework in the next section clarifies, automation corresponds to an increase in the capital intensity of production. The high demand for capital triggers further accumulation of capital (e.g., by increasing the rental rate of capital). Capital accumulation then raises the demand for labor. This may have been an important channel of adjustment of the British economy during the Industrial Revolution and of the American economy in the first half of the 20th century in the face of mechanization of agriculture, for in both cases there was rapid capital accumulation (Allen, 2009; Olmstead and Rhode, 2001).
The sentence "Capital accumulation then raises the demand for labor." is left unelaborated. I fail to understand why one should necessarily lead to the other. Can anyone explain?