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We note the following graph

enter image description here

There are three different Indifference Curves on this graph.

An indifference curve shows a combination of two goods that give a consumer equal satisfaction and utility thereby making the consumer indifferent.

The goods on the axes are x1 and x2. Assuming they all represent the points at which our economic actor is indifferent to the bundles. How can the person be indifferent to the bundles of goods on each indifference curve, when the lowest indifference curve has less goods in each bundle, than any of the higher ones?

edit: I answered my own question, but would still love it if someone take a look at it, and told me if it makes sense

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    $\begingroup$ Welcome! It's a bit strange: I thought the site imposed a delay of several days between the moment you ask a question and the moment you answer it. $\endgroup$ – emeryville Apr 12 at 7:50
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks! well, Apparently not ^^ $\endgroup$ – Robert Pajor Apr 12 at 8:15
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Each indifference Curve represents a different set of indifferences for different bundles of goods. Assuming the three Indifference curves are labeled I1, I2, I3, with I1 being the bottom one and I3 being the top one.

Take a bundle on I1. The consumer's preference is indifferent to any other bundle that is on I1, but would prefer every other bundle on I2 and I3 to the bundles on I1.

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