This a person's budget line with various points, and their consumption, C*, and their endowment e, which is worth $5000 (unimportant). Also shows is their initial indifference curve. The difference curve and budget line intersect at e and e'.
Question: Why is the marginal rate of substitution of a, on the budget line, greater than C*?
I've been told any point that lies to the left of C* (the consumption optimum) has a marginal rate of substitution higher than the one at C* which is equal to the price ratio. Similarly, any point which lies to the right of C* has a marginal rate of substitution less than the one at C* which is equal to the price ratio.
The second indifference curve that C* would form part of is not shown in the diagram.
Why can I know the marginal rate of substitutions of points on the budget line if the marginal substitution is calculated on an indifference curve? Or, in this case, the MRS of C* is calculated by equating the slope of the indifference curve to the slope of the budget line. More to the point, how can I arrive at the answer that the MRS a > MRS C* if MRS can only be calculated on for a point on the indifference curve and not for a point on the budget line? Wouldn't all points on the budget have the same MRS implied by the line's slope?
There is something simple I'm not seeing.