# Is the satisficing choice function rationalizable if the ordering isn't observable?

Edited: Say an observer observes only the choices made by the decision maker (and the sets from which these choices are made), but does not know the ordering. Then would the decision maker's choices still appear to be rationalizable (to the observer)?

Context from Osborne & Rubinstein (2020, Models in Microeconomic Theory):

• What do you mean by "not observable"? Apr 17 '20 at 14:41