I'm just starting with dynamic optimization and although I understant the proof's of the theorem I'm not able to fully understand whether the bellman equation is a function , a function valuated at some number (therefore a number) or both. I'm using Stokey Lucas and Prescot Recursive methods for economics dynamics. And they state in chapter 4.1 and 4.2: Given some assumptions about the feasibility set and the $F(x_t,x_{t+1})$ This problems are equivalent:
1) Sequential problem (SP) $sup_{x_{t+1}}(\Sigma_{t=0}^\infty\beta^tF(x_t,x_{t+1}))$ st $x_{t+1}\in\Gamma(x_{t+1})$ for all t
2) Functional Equation (FE)$\ v(x)= sup_{y\in\Gamma(x)}[F(x,y)+\beta v(y)]$
What is not clear to me is that: In 1 the result of applying sup operator is a NUMBER (Value function valuated at $x_0$ While in 2 as there is a functional equation, the result is a function. The authors seem to talk about a number (chapter 4.1) but then (in chapter 4.2) they state that applying the contraction mapping theorem to 2 we get the solution which is the unique fixed point in the set of continous bounded function, therefore the result is a function
So the solution is a number or a function?
Thanks in advance