This question may appear to be naive, however, since I am having problems understanding it, I had to resort to ask it here.
How will the sale of an old house at a profit affect the GDP? Let us say I bought a house in 2010 for $ \$100,000$. Depreciation per year was $ \$10,000$, hence in the year 2015, the house should have been worth $ \$50,000$. However, in the same year (2015), I sold the house at a price of $ \$80,000$ (thus a profit of $ \$30k$). Certainly the $ \$50k$ won't be added into the GDP of the year 2015 because it is nothing but just a sharing of the expenses, but, what's bothering me is the profit of $ \$30k$. Since this is a kind of "value added", how do I incorporate it in the expenditure and income models of the GDP? Should I consider it as an investment made by the business?