# Economic interpretation: IS curve contra GDP in equilibrium

I have in a problem shown that for the IS curve (Y) contra the GDP in equilibrium ($$Y^*$$) it applies that: $$\frac{\partial Y}{\partial G}>\frac{\partial Y^*}{\partial G}$$. Where G is public consumption. I think my calculations make sense. But what will the economic interpretation of this result be? Can anyone help me?

So graphically this is pretty straight forward, as you may have already understood: Since the LM curve has a positive slope the entire shift of IS curve ($$\frac{\partial Y}{\partial G})$$ is not fully translated into final output. It would happen when LM curve is flat (which is usually the case at very low interest rates in liquidity trap situation).
But as the interest rates goes up, the private investment demand comes down (called - crowding out of private investment) ultimately making final increase in demand ($$\frac{\partial Y^*}{\partial G}$$) to be lower at equilibrium as compared to $$\frac{\partial Y}{\partial G}$$.