Keynesian economics is defined as:
increased government expenditures and lower taxes to stimulate demand and pull the global economy out of the depression.
Do all modern economies adopt a Keynesian fiscal stance during significant economic downturns? Or have some demonstrated that they will not increase government spending at all during downturns?
To make the question less ambiguous, please assume a country is 'Keynesian' if government spending was intentionally increased by at least 2.5% during a downturn of at least 1% at any point in the last 50 years (and 'somewhat Keynesian' if government spending increased by 1.5% during a downturn of at least 1%).