Not the first time I am asking myself, but in this paper they actually start with a time dependent maximisation problem and then drop all time subscripts.
Background: They have profit maximisation problem that reads $$ \Pi = \phi^{t} \sum_{i=0}^\infty \left \{f[\theta_{g}(N_t,I_t)] - w_{Nt}N_t - w_{It}I_{t}-\lambda C_N N_{t-1}\right\} $$ where $\Pi$ is profits, $\phi^{t}$ is discount factor, $f[\theta_{g}(N_t,I_t)$ is output, $N_t$ and $I_t$ is different type of labour, $w_{Nt}$ and $w_{It}$ the respective wages, and $C_N$ a firing cost for the $\lambda$ workers that are replaced in each period.
Steps: They write "Adjustment costs are linear and there is no aggregate uncertainty, so time subscripts can be dropped and the objective simplified to be:" $$ \Pi = (1-\phi)^{-1} [f(\theta_{g}) - w_{N}N - w_{I}I- \phi \lambda C_N N ] $$
Question: I only knew this step with the Bellmann equation were you simplify the infinite horizon problem into basically a timeless problem of finding the optimal policy function, but here it seems to be literally just dropping the dimension like that. Does anybody know more generally when one can simplify a problem like this? This question interests me also more generally because I see many papers writing basically immediately version 2 of the problem and not considering optimizing the sum of the profits through time.
Reference: Angrist, J. D., & Kugler, A. D. (2003). Protective or counter‐productive? labour market institutions and the effect of immigration one unatives. The Economic Journal, 113(488), F302-F331.