The share of total income obtained by workers rather than capital owners is for obvious reasons of interest. Assuming that the economy can be desribed by an aggregate production function
$$Y = F(K,L)$$
where $K$ is capital input and $L$ is labor input the total expenditure on labor and capital is given as
$$pY = rK + wL,$$
where $p$ is output price, $r$ is user cost of capital and $w$ is the wage (perfect competition is assumed on all markets). Labors share of total revenue or expenditure is therefore given as
$$s_L := \frac{wL}{pY} = \frac{wL}{rK + wL},$$
depending only on $w,r,L,K$.
The elasticity of substitution is defined as
$$\sigma := - \frac{d\log(K/L)}{d\log(r/w)},$$
describing how the capital to labor ratio changes given a change in the ratio of user cost of capital to wage.
Since both labor share of expenditure and elasticity of substitution depend on the variables $w,r,L,K$ this suggest the question:
How does changes in labors share of income $s_L$ as a result of changes in relative price $(r/w)$ relate to the elasticity of substitution $\sigma$?