Usually the definition of necessary goods is the income elasticity between 0 and 1. But can a good with -0.5 income elasticity be considered necessary? There is this link that says that all the inferior goods are necessities: “Lastly, note that all inferior products are clearly necessities, but necessities include normal products with elasticities between zero and one.

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    $\begingroup$ In my opinion, these are not very good definitions :) The problem is that inferiority of a good is a "local" property. A good is inferior at some income level. The definitions above make no mention of this. $\endgroup$
    – Giskard
    May 13 at 15:07

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