Why is the partial derivative of $x_1^S(p_1, p_2, \overline{x}_1, \overline{x}_2) \equiv x_1(p_1,p_2,p_1\overline{x}_1+p_2\overline{x}_2)$ for $p_1$ $$ \frac{\partial x_1^S(p_1, p_2, \overline{x}_1, \overline{x}_2)}{\partial p_1}=\frac{\partial x_1(p_1,p_2,\overline{m})}{\partial p_1} +\frac{\partial x_1(p_1,p_2,\overline{m})}{\partial m}\overline{x}_1 $$
where $(\overline{x}_1,\overline{x}_2)$ is the bundle originally demanded at prices $(\overline{p}_1,\overline{p}_2)$ and income $\overline{m}$ and $x_1^S$ is the Slutsky demand function for good 1 and $x_1$ the Marshallian demand function for good 1?
I understand that $m=p_1\overline{x}_1+p_2\overline{x}_2$ because the pivot ensures that the consumer is still having enough income to purchase his old bundle $(\overline{x}_1,\overline{x}_2)$.
Chapter 8 of Varian shows this to derive the Slutsky equation using calculus. I don't understand the right side of the equation.
I know that $p_1\overline{x}_1+p_2\overline{x}_2=m$ and $\overline{p}_1\overline{x}_1+\overline{p}_2\overline{x}_2=\overline{m}$ where $m$ is the new budget.