Suppose we have a simple maximization problem as described in Equation 1.1 here or here. This leads us to the Lagrangian Equation 1.3: $$\begin{align*}\mathcal{L} &= \sum_{t=1}^\infty \beta^{t-1}\left\{u(c_t) + \lambda_t \left[ f(k_t) + (1 - \delta)k_t - c_t - k_{t+1}\right]\right\} \\ &= \sum_{t=1}^\infty \left[\beta^{t-1} u(c_t) - \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t c_t + \beta^{t-1} \lambda_t f(\mathbf{k_t}) + \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t(1-\delta)\mathbf{k_t} - \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t \mathbf{k_{t+1}}\right] \end{align*} $$
When we derive the first order condition with respect to $k_{t+1}$, which is: $$\frac{\partial \mathcal{L} (\cdot)}{\partial k_{t+1}} = 0 : \beta \lambda_{t+1} \frac{\partial f(k_{t+1})}{\partial k_{t+1}} + \beta \lambda_{t+1} (1 - \delta) -\lambda_t=0$$
why do we use the subscript $\phantom{.}_{t+1}$ in $\lambda_{t+1}$ and why does $\beta^{t-1}$ becomes $\beta$? I cannot understand how the first two terms are combined with the last one ($-\lambda_t$).
The relevant terms (with $k$) of the Lagrangian in period $\phantom{.}_{t+1}$ are: $$ \beta^{(t+1)-1} \lambda_{t+1} f(k_{t+1}) + \beta^{(t+1)-1} \lambda_{t+1} k_{t+1} (1 - \delta) - \beta^{(t+1)-1} \lambda_{t+1} k_{(t+1)+1}$$ so for this part of the sum we do not "care" about the last term when we take the derivative with respect to $k_{t+1}$. So for this period this part of the sum is $$\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}_{t+1}}{\partial k_{t+1}} = \beta^{t} \lambda_{t+1} \frac{\partial f(k_{t+1})}{\partial k_{t+1}} + \beta^{t} \lambda_{t+1} (1 - \delta)$$
The relevant terms (with $k$) of the Lagrangian in period $\phantom{.}_{t}$ are: $$\beta^{t-1} \lambda_t f({k_t}) + \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t(1-\delta){k_t} - \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t k_{t+1}$$ so for this period the part of the sum is $$\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}_t}{\partial k_{t+1}} = - \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t$$ Now the First Order Condition with respect to $k_{t+1}$ should be: $$\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}_{t+1}}{\partial k_{t+1}} + \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}_t}{\partial k_{t+1}} = \beta^{t} \lambda_{t+1} \frac{\partial f(k_{t+1})}{\partial k_{t+1}} + \beta^{t} \lambda_{t+1} (1 - \delta) - \beta^{t-1}\lambda_t = 0$$right?