Some (obv. very left) politicians in germany propose to impose that owning housing should be capped at what a person does use him/herself. That is, you should not be allowed to own housing for investment purposes.

Leaving the practiability issues aside, has an individual demand cap (maybe in markets other than housing) been studied in the economic literature?

  • $\begingroup$ Hi, welcome to economics.se. Opinion based questions whether we should have some policy or not are strictly off topic on this site (see our help center), asking for literature review for effects of such caps or even literature on such caps in general is completely fine and can stay here but you should change the question in the title, I changed it for you to something that I think reflects the body of the question, if you disagree with my edit you can change it to something else just please make sure the question is not opinion based $\endgroup$
    – 1muflon1
    Sep 17, 2021 at 9:59
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks, makes perfect sense! I edited further to make clear that general results for any market are useful. Maybe there even is an established term for such a "demand cap" in the literature. $\endgroup$
    – stollenm
    Sep 17, 2021 at 10:08


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