I am interest in finding the optimal strategy for a single bidder (the BNE), when I have a third-price auction with N bidders and two identical goods. The bidders have iid valuations: U(0,1)
I have been told by my teacher that it is a weakly dominant strategy for the bidders to bid their valuations, but I cannot see why this would be?
(and I know from the literature that it is optimal to bid slightly above your true valuation if only one item is auctioned off, i.e. to bid $b_i=\frac{n-1}{n-2}v_i$)
The utility function for bidder i looks like this:
$ u_i(b_i, b_{-i}) = \left\{
\begin{array}{lr}
v_i-\max_{(2)}\{b_{-i}\} & \text{if } b_i>\max_{(1)}\{b_{-i}\}>\max_{(2)}\{b_{-i}\} \\
v_i-\max_{(2)}\{b_{-i}\} & \text{if } \max_{(1)}\{b_{-i}\}>b_i>\max_{(2)}\{b_{-i}\} \\
0 & \text{if } b_i<\max_{(2)}\{b_{-i}\}
\end{array}
\right. $
since in this auction, the highest and second highest bidder wins a good each, and both pay the third highest bid, because the bidders gain equal value from either good.
If anyone knows why it supposedly is a weakly dominant strategy to bid your true value in this type of auction, or where I might find a good explanation, I would really appreciate any help I can get!