In some papers the authors use value-added over capital and labor as TFP measure, what is the intuition behind this? For example, in one paper I just read the authors use
$ \frac{VA}{(p_{K}K + p_{L}L)} $, where VA = value added.
I'm a bit confused, since we normally use a standard Cobb-Douglas production function. Transforming the equation by this following simple step leads to a similar but still different measure of the TFP "A", i.e. here I have gross output in the nominator and in the denominator there is a multiplication and not an addition?
$ Q=AK^{α}L^{1-α} $
$ \frac{Q}{(K^{α}L^{1-α})}=A $