I asked on Math SE a bit about level sets here.
Based on what I learned, it seems like we usually assume a level set $L(f)$ and its function $f$ defined on $\Bbb{R}^n$ have the following properties:
- $f$ is continuous
- Thus, the curves in the level set are closed curves. (not sure why)
- All closed curves are "converging" to a point. (not sure why)
- This point will be a maximum for the function: the derivative in the point will be zero, since if it was not then the point would be a 1-manifold, which is absurd.
- $\nabla f \neq 0$ on the rest of the points
I don't understand how we know a preference relation on a consumption bundle has a utility function representation such that these properties hold. According to my professor, we use level sets to describe indifference curves.
Therefore, if indifference curves are described by a level set, that level set must have the properties listed above. Note, for economics, we are considering a function $U(\mathbf{x})$, where $\mathbf{x}=(x_1,...,x_n)$, and the level set $L(U)$. Also, note $U: \Bbb{R}^n\rightarrow \Bbb{R}$.
My Question:
In economic terms, what assumption do we have to make to ensure, $U$, $L(U)$ have these properties to create a level set used for indifference curves?
Ideally, it would be great to have an enumerated list of the assumptions (ie 1,2,3).