1
$\begingroup$

Is there an example (in history or present-day) of the total market capitalization of a derivative asset being worth more than the market capitalization of the underlying instrument? And would this make sense in any circumstance?

New contributor
John DeBord is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering. Check out our Code of Conduct.
$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ How do you define market cap of derivs? $\endgroup$
    – AKdemy
    2 days ago

Your Answer

John DeBord is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.