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How much of the underlying index

e.g. S&P400 Midcap 400

does 1 share of different ETF's for the same index

e.g. IJH, MDY, SPMD, and IVOO

constitute?

In other words — Pretend I buy 1 share of IVOO, Husband buys 1 share of IJH, Mom buys 1 share MDY, and Son buys 1 share SPMD. Then who owns the most of S&P400 index???

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    $\begingroup$ The one with the highest price $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 14 at 23:20
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This is not an economics question (also not quant.se). There is money.stackexchange for basic personal finance questions. The price says it all - it will be a fraction of the SPX400 and that fraction determines how many shares. E.g. if it is 1/10th of the price, it will be 1/10th of the shares. If SPX400 trades at 2780, IJH will trade at 278. There are some nuances, but given the large price differences - that logic is sufficient for your question (the one who paid most, gets most).

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