For the purpose of this question, I'm only interested in relatively cheap goods (clothing, appliances, furniture, phones), not extremely substantial purchases like cars or houses.
Proceeding from rational choice theory, it seems that the existence of used good markets contribute to demand, since it is more advantageous for an individual to buy a good if they can re-sell it later on. So, from that perspective, by buying a good second-hand and supporting that specific used good market, I am also encouraging first-hand purchasers. Yet, from a behavioral standpoint, at least for items like clothing, it seems that resale value is not really a consideration for buyers. Additionally, I imagine the relative lack of re-selling infrastructure, compared to used cars and houses, for cheaper goods further pushes down the effect of second-hand purchases on first-hand demand.
I understand that any positive effect of second-hand purchases on first-hand demand will vary substantially from good to good, but in general, do second-hand purchases substantially encourage first-hand purchases? Is there any econometric literature exploring the magnitude of this effect?