On the one hand, "the cross country variation in output by inputs [is] termed the Solow residual" (Acs et al. 2014). (This also applies across time to single countries.) In my own words, economic output is only partially explained by inputs of capital, labour and knowledge, and the Solow residual is the residual of that regression. (The Solow residual concept was updated to include knowledge based on the later endogenous growth theory.)
On the other hand, the scale effect is the idea that "models in which growth is driven by the accumulation of non-rival knowledge predict that larger economies (measured by a larger labour force) grow faster" (Peretto & Smulders 2002). A major research question is why scale effects cannot be found empirically.
Both streams of research come under endogenous growth theory and revolve around roughly the same concept of (technological) knowledge. Thus, my main question is whether the Solow residual and the absence of scale effects are actually two names/approaches for the same basic problem. A secondary question is why a quick search for the combination of those two does not yield any significant results. Is it because they are actually unrelated or only remotely related, because they come from disconnected sub-disciplines, because scale effects are trendy as opposed to the Solow residual, or for some other reason?
EDIT: I've just realised that the Solow residual and the absence of scale effects are in fact opposed, so I guess my main question boils down to whether they can be reconciled while my secondary question stands.