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Are there any estimates across countries of the proportion of funds that actually get spent on what they're allocated to be spent on?1

Most OECD countries would probably have ratios close to 1:1, that is, most of the money allocated to a particular purpose gets spent on that purpose. However countries with more corruption may have much worse ratios.

I tried exploring some global corruption indices but couldn't find anything on this particular aspect, although I came across anecdotal stories (quite a few of them).

1 Through econometric analysis, construction of indices, literature review, meta studies, or otherwise.

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