The question I'm dealing with is:
Suppose A plays bf, Which of B's strategies would lead to an outcome that is not pareto efficient?
The answer is apparently ei as $(bf,ei)=(0,5)$, but I don't understand why. If this answer is correct, could you please explain why?
My understanding of pareto efficiency is that by moving from $(x,y)$, we cannot make any player better off without making the other worse off. If this is the case, then $(x,y)$ is pareto efficient.
$(x,y)$ would be pareto inefficient if there exists a movement away from $(x,y)$, where a player can be made better off without the other being made worse off.
From $(bf,ei)=(0,5)$, we can move to:
I don't see how we can move to any of these without making B worse off, I think that $(bf,ei)$ represents a pareto efficient outcome.
Any chance you could offer some advice?