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Can I claim that the concepts of weak and strong Pareto optimality are equivalent both in terms of efficiency and equity among agents and generate the same level of social welfare? I know that when preferences are monotonic and continuous, weakly pareto optimal is same as strongly pareto optimal.

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    $\begingroup$ Hi! Can you please define the terms you use? (Efficiency, equity, social welfare.) $\endgroup$
    – Giskard
    Commented Aug 30, 2022 at 11:33
  • $\begingroup$ I guess they are used in its general meaning. This was a true/false statement that i came across. $\endgroup$
    – user480530
    Commented Aug 30, 2022 at 11:40

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