If a market is given to be a Cuornot duopoly and Q = q1 + q2. What assumptions can you make about q1 and q2 being equal? Is it possible for q1 > q2 and thus for company 1 to have greater market share in an equilibrium?
Edit: I assume they have the same cost and indistinguishable products. I guess my question could be more simply boiled down to: Are they guaranteed to have inverted reaction functions?