Hypothesis: People are less likely to apply for a job in which they will be under-represented relative to the wider population. More technically, the distribution of job applicants is the same as, or similar to, the distribution of employees.
Example: Take a male-dominated job, such as tech, in which 73.3% of jobs are held by men and 26.7% by women, despite the fact that the population is roughly 50/50 men/women. Are female job applicants in tech also roughly 20-30% (or at least less than 50%) as a potential result of this?
The example can be extended to minority groups as well. Note that if a minority group makes up, say, 10% of the population and they are 10% of a given work force, I would not consider this to be under-representation. In this case, they would have to be less than 10% of the workforce to be under-represented.
I'm trying to find literature that has looked into the hypothesis, or some similar variant of it, but I'm struggling to find anything.
Please don't answer yes/no without references.