I couldn't understand the logic behind the increase in nominal income without changing the money supply, which I confronted with when I was studying financial markets on the relationship between money and interest rate which is:
$Ms=Md$ (In equilibrium condition)
$Md=Y*L(i) (-) $
How can a country increase its nominal income without money supply? Because If the marginal propensity to consume is 1, which means all disposable income will be spent by consumers (if we consider some of the least developed countries), therefore the demand curve for money would not shift because there wouldn't be any increase in nominal income except by increase in money supply due to all income is spent on consumption.