It is a known result in Mechanism Design that both first-price as well as second-price auctions yield the same expected revenue, under certain conditions (like independence of valuations, private information, etc). Consult Jehle, G. A., & Reny, P. J. (2011). Advanced Microeconomic Theory (3d ed.), ch.9 on Auctions and Mechanism Design, for a very accessible exposition of the basics, as well as for the full set of conditions that must hold.
The answer to your question is bound to be distribution-specific. Assume as an example, that, from the point of view of the seller, all (unknown to him) valuations of the bidders for the object for sale, come from a Uniform $U(0,1)$ distribution: this implies that we have normalized the value of the object for sale and that we express the possible valuations of it as a percentage of its possible maximum value, which is assumed common for all bidders. I.e. What we say here is :"we don't know how much each bidder actually values the object, but we do know that the maximum possible valuation by a bidder will be some $V>0$, and this $V$ is common to all bidders". We do not assert that there exists some bidder that actually values the object at $V$.
In such a setup, the Expected Revenue of the Seller is
$$ER(N) = \frac {N-1}{N+1} \tag {1}$$
where $N$ is the number of bidders. Again, this essentially expresses expected revenue as a fraction of the object (unidentified) maximum value.
Now you can play around with $N$ to see how the expected revenue changes, in absolute, relative and percentage terms. It sure isn't changing linearly, but it is everywhere increasing in $N$, approaching unity (i.e. the object maximum valuation).
This should be intuitive in the framework adopted: the more the bidders are, the more probable becomes to obtain higher and higher valuations of the object, and so also to sell it at a higher value.