I was recently given the following question: assuming that a consumer's total expenditure for a good does not change when the price of that good declines, what is the price elasticity of that consumer's demand?
Here's my initial thought process: Let their total expenditure $E = PQ$, where $P$ is the price and $Q$ is the quantity of that good. Suppose that $P$ decreases by $20\%$. Denote $P^{\prime}$ and $Q^{\prime}$ as the new price and quantity after the price decline. $P^{\prime} = 0.8P$, so $Q^{\prime} = \frac{1}{0.8} Q$ to make sure the final expenditure is the same. $\frac{1}{0.8} = 1.25$, which means quantity demanded increases by $25\%$. Thus, the price elasticity for his demand is relatively elastic.
However, the correct answer is that his demand is unit elastic. Could someone explain why this is true? Thank you!