Suppose $R$ is a social ordering, $f$ is the social choice function, and $R_i$ is an individual preference. A profile of individual preference is $<R_i>$.
$f(<R_i>)=R$
Suppose $i=1$ is the dictator. This means that $R=R_1$.
Now consider a new profile $<R^*>$ where only the taste of the dictator is updated: $R^*_i=R_i$ for all $i\neq 1$; and $R^*_1\neq R_1$.
In this case, do we still have $R_1^*=R^*$?