Osborne and Rubinstein (Models in Microeconomic Theory, p. 70) prove the proposition that, if the demand function of a rational consumer has the property that $\text{MRS}(x_1, x_2)$ is increasing in $x_2$ for all values of $x_1$, then good 1 is normal, as follows:
Fix $p_1^0$ and $p_2^0$ and let $w' > w$. Let $a$ be a solution to the consumer's problem for the budget set $B((p_1^0, p_2^0), w)$ and let $a'$ be a bundle on the frontier of $B((p_1^0, p_2^0), w')$ with $a_1' = a_1$. By the assumption on the marginal rate of substitution we have $\text{MRS}(a') > \text{MRS}(a)$, and hence the solution $b$ of the consumer's problem for the budget set $B((p_1^0, p_2^0), w')$ has $b_1 > a'_1 = a_1.$
I don't understand the very last inference. Why does the fact that $\text{MRS}(a') > \text{MRS}(a)$ imply the desired conclusion?