1
$\begingroup$

I have an economics question but it more so interested me mathematically; related to Arrow-Pratt theorem - risk aversion; hence I wanted to ask the following.

Given $p \in \mathbb{R^s}_{++}$ $\pi_s \geq 0$, $\sum_{s=1}^{S}\pi_s = 1$, $x \in B(p,w) := \{ y \in \mathbb{R}^S_+ \; | \; p.y = w \}$, for $t = 1,2$, $u: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} $ differentiable once, $u_t'(.) > 0$ where $u_1(.) = T(u_0(.))$ for $T(.)$ strictly concave (if not working, can be assumed to be strictly increasing).

Let $x^t$ be the maximizers of the following:

$$ max_{x \in B(p,w)} \sum_{s=1}^S \pi_su_t(x_s)$$

For $S=2, $If $x^0 = (x_1^0, x_2^0)$ is such that $x_1^0 < x_2^0$,

Please help me prove that $x_1^1 \geq x_1^0$. The intuition is that strictly concave transformations moves optimizers to more balanced bundles.

The original question:

  1. An economy has one physical good and two states of the world. Each consumer has consumption set $X=\mathbb{R}_{+}^2$ and endowment $\omega=\left(\omega_1, \omega_2\right) \gg 0$, where $\omega_s$ is the consumer's endowment of the good in state $s$ for $s=1,2$. The price of the good is in state $s$ is $p_s>0$. Each consumer's budget constraint is $p_1 c_1+p_2 c_2 \leq p_1 \omega_1+p_2 \omega_2=w$. There are two possible consumers, $t=0,1$. Both consumers have subjective-expected-utility preferences with belief $\pi=\left(\pi_1, \pi_2\right) \gg 0$ about the states, and they have the same endowment. They only differ in their von Neumann - Morgenstern (vN-M) utilities. Consumer $t$ 's vNM utility is $u_t$, a continuously differentiable function with $u_t^{\prime}>0$. (Neither is necessarily concave.) In addition, for every $z \geq 0, u_1(z)=T(u(z))$, where $u=u_0$ and $T: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is a strictly concave function. In words, consumer 1 is strictly more risk averse than consumer 0 . Let $c^t$ solve consumer $t$ 's problem, and, if necessary, relabel the states so that $c_1^0 \leq c_2^0$. Prove that $c_1^1 \geq c_1^0$ in two steps.

(a) First suppose that $c_1^0=c_2^0$; prove that $c_1^1 \geq c_1^0$.

(b) Next suppose that $c_1^0<c_2^0$; prove that $c_1^1 \geq c_1^0$. (Hint: consider, as an preliminary step, what consumer $t=1$ would chose if it were constrained to choose $c_1 \leq c_1^0$.) You might find this notation useful: $$ \bar{c}=\frac{w}{p_1+p_2} $$ it is the just-affordable consumption in each state when consumption in each state is equal.

$\endgroup$

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.