I'm studying producer-theory and I'm stuck on this. Maybe I'm missing something important, but if the demand curve facing a firm in a perfectly competitive market is the same as the market demand curve shouldn't both curves have the same shape? And if it is the case that the demand curve facing a firm in a perfectly competitive market is not the market demand curve, why is this so?
P.S.: This is my first question on this forum so I am still getting familiar with how it works. I do not know if my question is clear enough or if it is necessary to develop more about my doubt.