This operations research paper considers a "Cournot" competition modeled as follows.
[E]ach [firm] $i$ incurs a cost $w$ in obtaining one unit of the product, sells $q_i$ units of the product at a unit price $p_i$ , and generates a profit $π_i (q_1 , q_2)$ when the two retailers sell $q_1$ and $q_2$ units of the product, respectively. We have $p_i = z_i − (q_1 + q_2)$ and $π_i (q_1 , q_2) = (p_i − w)q_i = (z_i − (q_1 + q_2) − w)q_i$, for $i = 1, 2$, where for the same quantity sold, a retailer with a larger $z_i$ charges a higher price for the product.
(Presumably, the prices are normalized so that they have the same unit as quantities.) Based on what little I have read about Cournot competitions, it seems odd that there are two different prices for the same goods (unless $z_1 = z_2$, but interesting things happen only if $z_1 \neq z_2$ in this article). Is this model reasonably be called a Cournot competition?
I concede that this model gives the same equilibrium as the Cournot duopoly in which the marginal cost incurred to each firm is $w_i$ and the common price is $p_0 - (q_1 + q_2)$, where $p_0$, $w_1$, $w_2$ are chosen so that $p_0 - w_i = z_i - w$ and that the relevant quantities are nonnegative. Still I find that presentation in the article weird.
(I guess it's possible, albeit unfortunate, that this is what's called a Cournot competition in operations research even if it's not in economics.)