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Please excuse me if this is off-topic, and don't be offended if it is stupid.

Scholars theorize that the stakes matter for rational decision making or cost-benefit calculations (under uncertainty or risk).

But I haven't found a reference clearly explaining how the concept of stakes is understood, and how it enters the terms of the calculus, B and C (are stakes considered a B or a C?). I have come across the concept as if it is known and not needed to be interpreted in formal terms (perhaps this is because there is no reason to do so - something I am not aware of or have yet to understand). These are some of the examples I am thinking about but haven't seen discussed or explained clearly in literature but would appreciate clarification of:

  • do stakes affect—increase or decrease—B, C, or both e.g. B-C? Are there strong reasons to think about it in one of these ways?
  • if one’s anticipated gain is another’s loss: how is it translated into B and C? Both agents have something at stake. But are the terms so encompassing that one’s gain is possible B while another’s loss is possible C?
  • An agent might lose what’s at stake irrespective of the initial calculus. So after the fact one might have lost and another might have benefitted. Before the fact, which is the time of decision making or the reason for action, the stakes may be thought of as benefits.
  • is it up to the individual agent to judge what the stakes are? Perhaps because one cares more deeply than the other. How are the terms affected? Is caring deeply the same as perceiving high stakes and thus 0<B-C?
  • is the interpretation of stakes in formal terms mere semantics or does it have theoretical interpretations i.e. for debates about rational choice, expected utility, prospect theory (loss'/gain's domains), decision making under risk (known outcomes and probabilities of outcomes) vs. uncertainty (unknown probabilities of outcomes), game theory, etc.?

Can you either please clearly explain or refer me to a reference that does that? (or refer me to a better forum or Q&A site for this). My immediate view tends to be that stakes are encompassed as benefits rather than costs. But there may be reasons you can help me understand to not view it like that or to say that an alternative view is equivalent or preferable. Thank you.

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    $\begingroup$ Are you asking if a stake should be considered a cost or a benefit? BTW, the word stake has the same meaning in economics as it does outside economics. See for example here and here. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Aug 28 at 1:28
  • $\begingroup$ @HerrK., yes that is an alternative way of asking the question, thank you. $\endgroup$
    – Johan
    Commented Aug 28 at 18:17
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    $\begingroup$ I think this is more of a semantic question than an economic one. Someone who has bet \$500 on a horse race has a stake---the \$500 bet---in the game. In this case, the stake is a cost, incurred for the potential gain from the bet. In contrast, a citizen may have a stake in a government policy. However, the stake here is not a cost incurred but the potential benefit (possibly negative) of the policy to the stakeholders. So it depends on the context. Nevertheless, in neither scenario does the cost-benefit analysis depend on the labeling of stake as B or C; what matters at the end is (B-C). $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Aug 28 at 21:24
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for engaging with the question anyhow, @HerrK. (meaning despite semantics, which is derogatory for cheap talk). In my view, that discussion is entirely useful for the sake of being clear about what is asserted. Not least if we desire to operationalize the model empirically. It might also be that the question taps into a debate between e.g. expected utility theory and prospect theory (where potential losses have greater effects than potential gains on decisions) and thus fundamental disagreement among economists/social scientists. ... $\endgroup$
    – Johan
    Commented Aug 29 at 9:00
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    $\begingroup$ Also, neither rational choice theory nor expected utility theory require a clear distinction between cost and benefit. Only (B-C) matters because cost is negative benefit and benefit is negative cost. I would argue that even prospect theory does not require the distinction of C from B, only gains from losses, which are conceptually different from C&B, though the difference is more nuanced. This is why I think the focus on separating cost from benefit---and on top of that, labeling stake as cost vs stake as benefit---is just semantics and really misses the point of economic theorizing. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Aug 29 at 17:28

2 Answers 2

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For clarity, let's first understand what "stake" means. According to Merriam-Wester, the word "stake" has several meanings, the most relevant to economics is the following:

3 a: something that is staked [i.e. betted or wagered] for gain or loss
b: the prize in a contest
c: an interest or share in an undertaking or enterprise

Whether a stake counts as benefit or cost depends on which sense the word is used in.

a. If stake refers to a wager for potential gain or loss, it can be viewed as a cost.

b. If stake refers to the prize in a contest, then it's a benefit.

c. If stake refers to a share or an interest in something being consequential (financially or otherwise) to a stakeholder, then it is essentially a lottery ticket (in the sense used in expected utility theory), which may be a benefit or a cost depending on its expected value (ex ante) or realization (ex post). In other words, it can be either, depending on the context.


Now, to the items on which you seek clarifications:

do stakes affect—increase or decrease—B, C, or both e.g. B-C? Are there strong reasons to think about it in one of these ways?

It depends on the context, particularly the sense in which the word "stake" is used. See discussion above.

if one’s anticipated gain is another’s loss: how is it translated into B and C? Both agents have something at stake. But are the terms so encompassing that one’s gain is possible B while another’s loss is possible C?

If $i$'s gain is $j$'s loss, then we simply write $B_i = C_j$, where $B_i$ enters positively in $i$'s utility and $C_j$ enters negatively in $j$'s utility.

An agent might lose what’s at stake irrespective of the initial calculus. So after the fact one might have lost and another might have benefitted. Before the fact, which is the time of decision making or the reason for action, the stakes may be thought of as benefits.

This is consistent with the view of stake as lottery, whose value may differ between ex ante and ex post.

is it up to the individual agent to judge what the stakes are? Perhaps because one cares more deeply than the other. How are the terms affected? Is caring deeply the same as perceiving high stakes and thus 0<B-C?

For stake-as-a-wager or prize, there is usually little room for individual differences in how it is perceived. But for stake-as-a-lottery, individual differences in perception can exist, for example, due to differences in access to information, psychological predispositions, etc. While wagers/prizes are sure outcomes (i.e. there's no uncertainty of what they are), lotteries consist of a set of outcomes and their associated probabilities. It is the probabilities that can be perceived differently by different individuals. Objective probabilities can be misperceived a la Kahneman-Tversky/prospect theory, and subjective probabilities are, well, subjective. That's why wagers/prizes cannot be perceived differently, but lotteries can.

Now, "caring deeply" should be thought of as having an intense preference for or a high valuation of an outcome, and can be modeled with a cardinal utility such as quasilinear or vNM utility. But whether it can be interpreted as "perceiving high stakes" will have to be determined by further details from the context.

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    $\begingroup$ @Johan: To your second comment, a rational decision-maker should consider the C/B balance of all available options. Just because C>B for an option does not necessarily mean it should be forsaken; one has to consider the C/B balance of the other options and pick one that has the highest B against C, even if the balance is still negative. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Sep 7 at 1:37
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    $\begingroup$ @Johan: We've been talking about C-B analysis as if it's always possible to linearly separate the two. Sometimes it's not; namely, it's impossible to put C and B on different sides of an inequality. In those cases, we'd have look at net benefit (NB) and see if NB<>0. It's natural to think that NB is captured by a utility function. However, econ theory also posits that utility is ordinal, meaning that in general utility doesn't have a unit. This implies that, if you want to model intensity of preference, you'd have to use special utility functions (e.g. quasilinear) that have a unit (e.g. \$) $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Sep 7 at 2:05
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    $\begingroup$ @Johan: 1) Expected utility theory is a very mature framework for understanding risks (known probabilities), while (Knightian) uncertainty or ambiguity is addressed in certain areas of behavioral economics. 2) See this Wikipedia article or any intermediate micro textbook for a discussion. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Sep 15 at 14:19
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    $\begingroup$ @Johan: In economics, risk and uncertainty differs in whether the probabilities (subjective or otherwise) of relevant outcomes are known. Risk refers to known probabilities and uncertainty to unknown ones. To avoid equivocation, uncertainty in this sense is also referred to as Knightian uncertainty, following Frank Knight who first proposed the distinction. Savage's SEUT would be considered decision under risk, because probabilities, albeit subjective, are still "known" to the decision-maker. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Sep 16 at 16:46
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    $\begingroup$ @Johan: As shown in my improved edit, I'm back-tracking a bit on my original comment on "caring deeply as perceiving high stake", because I was to a certain extent also confusing perception with valuation. $\endgroup$
    – Herr K.
    Commented Sep 18 at 14:17
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HerrK. answered

do stakes affect—increase or decrease—B, C, or both e.g. B-C? Are there strong reasons to think about it in one of these ways?

It depends on the context, particularly the sense in which the word ‘stake’ is used.

Whether a stake counts as benefit or cost depends on which sense the word is used in.

I would like to add that the three meanings of stakes don’t differ much considering that all regard 1) a probability distribution on outcomes (chance/risk of reward) and 2) outcomes (what is there to win/not win/lose).

It is not useful to focus too much on a prize itself (an outcome) because that compares less directly with e.g. a lottery. Conversely, the contest for a prize is comparable with a lottery.

The exception regards wagers/bets i.e. risking to jeapordize current (privately held, personal) value for the possibility of gaining more value (handed by the losing party) or the honor of not losing. In that case, the outcome itself seem to differ from outcomes like a prize or an outcome of a lottery, which are mostly not already private but rather up for grabs.

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