I read this article earlier, and the "experts" there say:
"The incidence of poverty is very high in agriculture because of its low productivity."
"The incidence of poverty is very high in agriculture because of its relatively slow growth."
But why do they say that? How about you? What do you think is the cause? To me, they keep saying that:
"[T]he share of agriculture in GDP, and not the demand for agriculture per se, which declines as income per capita increases"
But why would you want to be more productive/produce more goods when people in general are going to have a pretty much similar demand for the product ('cause it says there that demand for agri products don't necessarily decline)?