In Blanchard's Macroeconomics, page 211, 5th edition, the author using the following three mathematical equalities
Okun's law : $u_t-u_{t-1}=-\beta(g_{yt}-\bar{g_y})$, where $\bar{g_y}$ is defined as the output growth rate when the unemployment rate is constant, $g_{yt}$ output growth rate from year t-1 to t.
expectations-augmented Philips curve,
and assuming a functional form for the aggregate demand relation that allows to deduce $g_{yt}=g_{mt}-\pi_t$, where $g_{mt}$ is nominal money growth rate
makes a reasoning on what happens in the medium-run when the central bank maintains a constant growth rate of nominal money, concluding that although changes in the growth rate of nominal money doesn't change unemployment rate, it does change the inflation rate one-for-one. One of the first assumptions of the reasoning is that in the medium run the unemployment rate is constant. But why can we assume this?
In previous chapters, we had assumed that output would change one-for-one with employment, and that the labour force was constant. Then, when the expected price level were equal to the actual price level, the economy would be in natural output level, and that would imply from previous two assumptions that unemployment rate would also be the natural one. However, in this chapter, when the author was deriving the Okun's law, we explicitly assumed that labour force was no longer constant, and that employment would respond less than one-for-one to output, and that changes in employment are not negatively reflected one-for-one in the unemployment. Also, in same page 211, it's the author's conclusion that the unemployment rate in the medium-run is the natural unemployment rate. So, we cannot assume what we're trying to conclude...
Therefore, why can we assume that the unemployment rate must be constant in the medium run?
Any help would be appreciated.