Any pure strategy Nash equilibrium is implicitly a mixed-strategies Nash equilibrium. Since the valuations vary, it's a good indicator we want to consider mixed-strategies. The fact that the problem tells us this is a stronger indicator, though I'm sure not the axiomatic justification you are seeking. :-)
Consider player $1$. We have player $1$'s expected profit: $\mathbb{E}[\Pi_{1}(b)] = (2-b) Pr[b \geq \beta_{2}(v_{2})]$, where $b$ is player $1$'s bid, $\beta_{2}$ is player $2$'s bidding strategy, and $v_{2}$ is player $2$'s valuation. We can assume $\beta_{2}(0) = 0$ (because if $\beta_{2}(0) > 0$, player $2$ can improve upon this by decreasing his bid). Since we are only considering two potential valuations for player $2$, we can assume $\beta_{2}(v) = av$, for some constant $a \in \mathbb{R}_{++}$. (That is, given the two points $(0, 0)$ and $(2, \beta_{2}(2))$, we just draw a line between them).
Observe that $Pr[b \geq av] = Pr[v \leq \frac{b}{a}] = \frac{b}{2a}$, with the last inequality since we have a 50-50 chance on the valuation of player $2$.
Now for a Nash equilibrium, player $1$ seeks to maximize his expected value. This is given by the following optimization problem:
$$\max_{b} (2-b) \cdot (\frac{b}{2a})$$
This yields the first order conditions:
$\frac{1}{2a} \cdot (2 - 2b) = 0$, and we obtain that $b = 1$ is our only solution for player $1$. This answer should be reasonably intuitive.
Now player $2$ only wins if his valuation is $2$. So he players $\beta_{2}(2) = 1$ and $\beta_{2}(0) = 0$.