In my economics class, we were introduced to the idea that if the government imposes an indirect tax on a good, the price consumers have to pay increases, but along with this increase in price for consumers, the price producers receive decreases. I understand the former perfectly, however, don't understand why the price producers receive decreases.
$P^*$ is the original price prior to the imposition of taxes, and $Q^*$ is the quantity demanded prior to the imposition of taxes. $P_c$ is the price paid by consumers after the government's decision, and $P_p$ is the price received by firms, once again, after the imposition of taxes.
My question is, why isn't $P^*$ equal to $P_p$?