MWG taught that, suppose that the menu is finite, "rational" is the same as "complete and transitive". But it seems that it does not cite any sources. Who said this first?
vNM said in 1944 that their EU is rational behavior, which is followed by computer scientists, statistician, and Finance literature. Why didn't MWG also follow this?
MWG equate "rationalizable" with "existence of utility function" or "complete and transitive preference". To be clearer about my question, I am most interested in learning the first literature which argue that the "existence of utility function" or "complete and transitive preference" is rational.