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The marginal cost is the same for any firm in a perfectly competitive market at equilibrium. Now, let's prove it. Suppose there is at least one firm (firm 1) that has a higher marginal cost, $MC_1 … $, than the remaining firms, at $MC_0$. The price, $P$, is the same for every firm because goods are homogenous. Rational consumers with perfect information would never buy the same good at a higher …
answered Aug 19 '16 by GuiWil