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In your comment you say you want the answer in context of the classic textbook model for goods market/output equilibrium. Following the Blanchard macroeconomics textbook lets consider closed economy so the output will be given by: $$Y=C+I+G$$ where $Y$ is output/income (they must be always equal), $C$ consumption, $I$ investment and $G$ gov. spending. ...


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It's possible, although highly unlikely. Take a look at this article here, in it, it clearly states that this has been tried before in European countries, but it was often ineffective due to a lack of effective 'policing' (where a country's tax agency taxes all those who the new tax woul apply to, rather, only getting a small percentage). I (and many ...


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